what is the best experimental method to analyze the effect of tdh2
The general experimental procedure was every bit follows: (i) purified rabbit proteasome (2 nM) was incubated in the presence of porphyrin at 37°C for thirty minutes; (2) the reaction was initiated past addition of the peptide (100 μM); and (3) intensity of fluorescence emission at 440 nm (excitation at 360 nm) was monitored for 20 minutes.
What expression gives the amount of light free energy (in J per photon) that is converted to other forms between the fluorescence excitation and emission events?
A. (6.62 × 10–34) × (3.0 × xeight)
B. (6.62 × 10–34) × (3.0 × ten8) × (360 × 10–ix)
C. (half dozen.62 × 10–34) × (3.0 × 108) × [1 / (360 × 10–9) – 1 / (440 × 10–9)]
D. (6.62 × 10–34) × (three.0 × x8) / (440 × ten–9)
The answer to this question is C.
The equation of interest is E = hf = hc/λ, where h = half-dozen.62 × 10−34 J ∙ southward and c = 3 × 10viii g/s.
Excitation occurs at λe = 360 nm, but fluorescence is observed at λf = 440 nm. This implies that an free energy of Eastward = (6.62 × 10−34) × (three × ten 8) × [1 / (360 × 10−ix) − one / (440 × 10−9)] J per photon is converted to other forms betwixt the excitation and fluorescence events.
Which amino acid is found in greatest abundance in the active site of a laccase?
A. Phe
B. Tyr
C. His
D. Cys
The answer to this question is C.
The five-membered imidazole rings depicted in Effigy one are associated with histidine, an amino acrid whose side concatenation is frequently encountered at the active site of metalloenzymes.
A person is sitting on a chair every bit shown.
Why must the person either lean forward or slide their feet under the chair in order to stand?
A. To increase the forcefulness required to stand up
B. To utilize the friction with the footing
C. To reduce the free energy required to stand up upward
D. To keep the torso in equilibrium while ascension
The answer to this question is D.
Equally the person is attempting to stand up, the only back up comes from the feet on the ground. The person is in equilibrium just when the centre of mass is directly above their anxiety.
Otherwise, if the person did non lean forward or slide the anxiety nether the chair, the person would fall backward due to the big torque created by the combination of the weight of the body (applied at the person'south eye of mass) and the altitude along the horizontal between the center of mass and the support point.
Asymmetry resulting from tertiary structural features causes the largest increment in CD indicate intensity in the near UV region (250–290 nm) of peptides. The side bondage of aromatic amino acid residues absorb in this region. The asymmetry of the α-carbon atom does non impact the CD bespeak of the effluvious side chain nor do elements of secondary structure.
The side chain of tryptophan will give rise to the largest CD signal in the near UV region when:
A. present every bit a free amino acid.
B. part of an α-helix.
C. part of a β-sail.
D. part of a fully folded protein.
The answer to this question is D.
Tryptophan has an aromatic side chain that will requite rise to a significant CD signal in the near UV region if information technology is plant in a fully folded protein.
The peptide bond absorbs in the far UV region (190–250 nm). The CD signals of these bonds are dramatically impacted past their proximity to secondary structural elements.
Disproportion resulting from tertiary structural features causes the largest increase in CD signal intensity in the near UV region (250–290 nm) of peptides. The side chains of aromatic amino acid residues absorb in this region. The asymmetry of the α-carbon atom does not touch the CD signal of the aromatic side chain nor exercise elements of secondary structure.
Which amino acid will contribute to the CD signal in the far UV region, only NOT the near UV region when role of a fully folded protein?
A. Trp
B. Phe
C. Ala
D. Tyr
The answer to this question is C.
All chiral nonaromatic amino acids will contribute solely to the CD signal in the far UV region.
Based on the relative free energy of the captivated electromagnetic radiations, which absorber, a peptide bond or an aromatic side concatenation, exhibits an electronic excited state that is closer in energy to the ground land?
Asymmetry resulting from tertiary structural features causes the largest increase in CD indicate intensity in the about UV region (250–290 nm) of peptides. The side chains of effluvious amino acrid residues absorb in this region. The peptide bond absorbs in the far UV region (190–250 nm).
A. An aromatic side chain; the absorbed photon energy is higher.
B. An aromatic side chain; the captivated photon free energy is lower.
C. A peptide bond; the captivated photon energy is college.
D. A peptide bond; the absorbed photon energy is lower.
The answer to this question is B.
Aromatic side bondage blot in the most UV region of the electromagnetic spectrum, which has longer wavelengths, and hence lower free energy, than peptide bonds.
Because the free energy of the photon matches the free energy gap between the footing and the excited country, this implies that the aromatic side concatenation has more closely spaced energy levels.
A synthetic peptide with the amino acid sequence KTFCGPEYLA was generated as a mimic of the T-loop.
What is the net charge of sT-loop at pH 7.two?
A. –2
B. –i
C. 0
D. +i
The answer to this question is C.
At pH 7.two, the Due north-terminus will exist positively charged and the C-terminus will exist negatively charged.
In add-on, the lysine side chain will carry i positive charge and the glutamic acrid side chain will carry one negative charge.
This synthetic T-loop (sT-loop) was incubated with32P-labeled ATP in the presence of PDK1 for unlike fourth dimension periods at 37 ° C and pH seven.ii, and the amount of radioactivity incorporated into sT-loop was measured past detection of β– decay.
In designing the experiment, the researchers used which type of32P labeled ATP?
A. α32P-ATP
B. β32P-ATP
C. γ32P-ATP
D. δ32P-ATP
The answer to this question is C.
The phosphoryl transfer from kinases comes from the γ-phosphate of ATP.
Therefore, the experiment should require γ32P-ATP.
This experiment was repeated in the presence of a synthetic peptide that mimics the HM domain (sHM) of Ser/Thr kinases with the amino acid sequence FLGFTY. Phosphorylated sHM (spHM) was also used in place of sHM.
When used in place of spHM, which peptide would be most likely to achieve the same experimental results?
A. FLGFAY
B. FLGFQY
C. FLGFGY
D. FLGFEY
The answer to this question is D.
The phosphorylated threonine would nearly likely be mimicked by glutamic acid.
The curve of a cooperative process has which shape?
sigmoidal
Which of the following all-time describes the bonds between Cu2+ and the nitrogen atoms of the ammonia molecules in [Cu(NHiii)4]2+?
A. Ionic
B. Covalent
C. Coordinate ionic
D. Coordinate covalent
The respond to this question is D.
The Lewis acid–base of operations interaction between a metal cation and an electron pair donor is known as a coordinate covalent bond.
In [Cu(NH3)4]ii+, the subscript 4 indicates which of the following?
A. The oxidation number of Cu simply
B. The coordination number of Cu2+ simply
C. Both the oxidation number of Cu and the coordination number of Cu2+
D. Neither the oxidation number of Cu nor the coordination number of Cu2+
The respond to this question is B.
Because ammonia is neutral, the number four reflects only the number of ammonia molecules that demark to the central Cu2+cation and does non betoken anything about its oxidation number.
4C3HfiveN3O9(fifty) → 12COii(m) + 10H2O(thousand) + 6N2(thou) + O2(one thousand)
Reaction 1
At STP, the volume of N2(one thousand) produced by the complete decomposition of i mole of nitroglycerin would be closest to which of the following?
A. 5 L
B. 10 L
C. 20 50
D. 30 Fifty
The answer to this question is D.
Based on the balanced equation provided, 4 moles of nitroglycerin produces vi moles of N2(g).
Therefore, 1 mole of nitroglycerin will produce 1.5 moles of N2(one thousand). At STP 1.5 moles of N2(k) will occupy 33.6 Fifty since the tooth volume of an ideal gas at STP is 22.4 Fifty/mol.
Which of the following energy conversions best describes what takes place in a bombardment-powered resistive excursion when the current is flowing?
A. Electrical to thermal to chemical
B. Chemical to thermal to electric
C. Electrical to chemical to thermal
D. Chemical to electric to thermal
The answer to this question is D.
The chemic energy of the bombardment elements is used as electrical energy to prepare the charge carriers in motion through the resistor, where they feel drag from the crystal lattice of the resistive usher and dissipate their free energy as heat from the resistor.
Protein secondary structure is characterized past the pattern of hydrogen bonds between:
A. courage amide protons and carbonyl oxygens.
B. backbone amide protons and side chain carbonyl oxygens.
C. side chain hydroxyl groups and backbone carbonyl oxygens.
D. side concatenation amide protons and backbone carbonyl oxygens.
The respond to this question is A.
Secondary construction is represented by repeated patterns of hydrogen bonds between the backbone amide protons and carbonyl oxygen atoms.
What is the major pathway for ATP production in one case the electron transport concatenation is shut down?
glycolysis
Why was information technology necessary for the researchers to determine the activeness of the circuitous I, 2, and 3 of the ETC contained of 1 some other?
A. Complex stability is lost if the complexes are able to collaborate structurally.
B. The complexes take unlike cellular locations, and information technology is non feasible to isolate them together.
C. The complexes all use the same substrates, then their utilize must be monitored separately.
D. The reactions catalyzed past the complexes are coupled to 1 another.
The answer to this question is D.
Studying the complexes all together would atomic number 82 to erroneous results because inhibition of complexes I and 2 affects the activity of Complex III, which affects the activity of Circuitous 4.
In the absence of Frizzled activation, CK1 and GSK3 sequentially phosphorylate β-catenin, which targets it for ubiquitination.
In the absence of Frizzled activation, β-catenin is covalently modified and:
A. spring past a proteasome to initiate degradation into brusque peptides.
B. translocated into the Golgi trunk for secretion through exocytosis.
C. engulfed by a lysosome where information technology is hydrolyzed by proteases.
D. stored in vesicles until the signaling pathway is activated.
The respond to this question is A.
According to the passage, in the absence of Frizzled activation, β-catenin is phosphorylated and ubiquitinated. Ubiquitination targets a protein for degradation by a proteasome.
What is the best experimental method to analyze the effect oftdh2 gene deletion on the rate of histone acetylation? Comparing histone acetylation in wild-blazon andΔtdh2 cells by:
A. Western absorb
B. Southern blot
C. Northern blot
D. RT-PCR
The respond to this question is A.
Posttranslational modification of proteins such as histone acetylation is analyzed past Western blotting.
Which experimental approach(es) can be used to analyze the consequence of ROS on the lifespan of yeast? Comparison the lifespans of:
I. wild-type yeast versus yeast lacking antioxidant enzymes
2. wild-blazon yeast versus yeast overexpressing antioxidant enzymes
Iii. yeasts growing in the presence or absenteeism of hydrogen peroxide
A. I just
B. II but
C. Ii and 3 simply
D. I, II, and III
The answer to this question is D.
All listed options influence ROS levels in yeast and can be used to clarify the role of ROS in regulating the lifespan of yeast.
Vasopressin regulates the insertion of aquaporins into the apical membranes of the epithelial cells of which renal construction?
A. Collecting duct
B. Proximal tubule
C. Bowman's capsule
D. Ascending loop of Henle
The answer to this question is A.
Vasopressin regulates the fusion of aquaporins with the apical membranes of the collecting duct epithelial cells.
G542X is anotherCFTR allele. If a female heterozygous forG542X bears a child fathered by a male heterozygous for theΔF508 allele, what is the probability that the kid would exist homozygous for theG542X allele, given that neither parent has CF?
A. 0.00
B. 0.25
C. 0.75
D. 1.00
The answer to this question is A.
Both parents would need to acquit theG542Xallele in order for a child to be homozygous for theG542X allele.
Because only the mother carries theG542X allele, the probability that the child will be homozygous for theG542X allele is 0.
The infectivity of VSV-EGP, vesicular stomatitis virus (VSV) particles engineered to contain EGP instead of VSV glycoprotein in the viral envelope, was reduced more than than 99-fold past inhibitors of the mammalian proteases CatB and CatL.
Based on the passage, CatB or CatL or both would be expected to take which of the post-obit effects, if any, on EGP?
A. No outcome
B. Reduction of enzyme activity
C. Formation of poly peptide dimers
D. Digestion into smaller protein fragments
The respond to this question is D.
The passage states that CatB and CatL are proteases. Proteases part to digest proteins into smaller fragments.
The precursor of EGP is translated from a transcript that has had 1 nontemplated nucleotide added to the open reading frame. This change does not create or eliminate a stop codon. Compared with the poly peptide sGP, which is produced from the unedited transcript, EGP nearly likely has the aforementioned primary:
A. amino-terminal sequence as sGP, simply a dissimilar primary carboxy-terminal sequence.
B. carboxy-terminal sequence as sGP, but a different master amino-terminal sequence.
C. sequence as sGP except that EGP has ane additional amino acrid.
D. sequence as sGP except that EGP has one less amino acrid.
The respond to this question is A.
The addition of i nucleotide to the open reading frame of EGP results in a frameshift mutation and an aberrant carboxy-last domain.
Melanosomes most likely move forth microtubules that originate in and radiate from the:
A. centrosome.
B. kinetochores.
C. Golgi apparatus.
D. microfilaments under the plasma membrane.
The answer to this question is A
Microtubules are cellular structures that originate from centrosomes.
Where in the man male reproductive arrangement do the gametes go motile and capable of fertilization?
A. Testis
B. Urethra
C. Epididymis
D. Prostate gland
The answer to this question is C
Sperm, produced in the seminiferous tubules of the testes, completes maturation and becomes motile in the epididymis.
According to the cross-span model of muscle contraction, the muscles stiffen subsequently expiry considering ATP is unavailable to bind and directly release:
A. ADP from the actin head.
B. ADP from the myosin head.
C. the actin caput from the myosin filament.
D. the myosin head from the actin filament.
The reply to this question is D
During normal musculus wrinkle, ATP is required to break the bonds betwixt the actin filament and the myosin head.
Later death, no new ATP is generated so the myosin head cannot be released from the actin filament, resulting in stiffening of muscles.
Which information from the passage contradicts the socioeconomic gradient in wellness?
A. The U.S. has a insufficiently high median household income.
B. The U.Southward. health disadvantage exists for all social classes.
C. The U.S. lags behind peer countries in health indicators.
D. The U.Southward. wellness disadvantage is explained by social capital.
The reply to this question is B.
The socioeconomic gradient in health refers to the graded relationship between social course and health, in which each "stride" up on the hierarchy of social stratification tends to exist associated with improve health.
In stating that the U.South. health disadvantage exists beyond social classes, this assertion from the passage challenges the protective attribute of advantaged social class that is implied by the socioeconomic gradient in health.
Which hypothetical result from the online questionnaire would provide evidence of the fundamental attribution error?
A. Some participants rank personality factors in a higher place environmental factors.
B. Some participants rank genetic factors to a higher place personality factors.
C. Some participants rank environmental factors over both personality and genetic factors.
D. Some participants rank genetic factors over both personality and environmental factors.
The answer to this question is A.
The fundamental attribution error refers to stressing the importance of dispositional (i.due east., personality) factors in 1's explanations of other people's behavior and underemphasizing situational factors.
A study finds that individuals who follow a weekly practice routine showroom less immunity decline compared to those who do not. The exercise grouping only included participants who exercised regularly, whereas the comparison grouping just included those who did not exercise regularly. Which statement does NOT place a limitation of this research pattern?
A. The study lacks random assignment.
B. The study has a possible sampling bias.
C. The written report lacks replicable results.
D. The written report has a possible derange.
The respond to this question is C.
The written report lacks random assignment considering the two groups were equanimous of individuals with established exercise habits.
Because the participants were not as likely to be in the two groups, there is a potential bias in the sample.
In addition, practise habits pose a potential confound because the group that already exercises regularly could differ from the comparison group in a number of ways.
However, in that location is nothing about the hypothetical study that excludes the possibility of replicable results. Keeping in listen that the question asks for what is NOT a limitation, the incorrect options identify important methodological limitations of the written report whereas the correct reply does not.
During the discussions, participants in the social identity status groups were more likely to exhibit groupthink symptoms such every bit making more rationalizations, introducing fewer facts, and discussing risks less oft.
Based on the findings in Study ii, which strategy for controlling groups would be most likely to prevent groupthink?
A. Make certain that all controlling groups are fabricated up of groups of friends.
B. Whenever possible, avoid the selection of a group leader through pop vote.
C. Encourage a grouping norm of critical evaluation and dissent in controlling.
D. Crave conclusion-making groups to verify that groupthink did not influence their conclusion.
The answer to this question is C.
Those in the social identity condition exhibited more groupthink symptoms than those in the interpersonal condition.
They make more rationalizations, introduce fewer facts, and discuss risks less frequently.
Pressures to attain consensus and stifle dissent are central to groupthink, and thus a grouping norm that encouraged dissent and critical evaluation would accost the central problem of groupthink.
A researcher is interested in how anxiety disorders affect escape learning. Which procedure is most appropriate for assessing the dependent variable in this report?
A. Having the participants fill up out a validated questionnaire that screens for feet disorders
B. Having a trained practitioner appraise the participants for anxiety disorders
C. Monitoring how many trials it takes for participants to avert a response that results in an electric shock when the electric shock is signaled with a tone
D. Monitoring how many trials it takes for participants to be conditioned to perform a response that results in the termination of an electrical shock
The answer to this question is D.
The purpose of the study was to make up one's mind how anxiety disorders touch escape learning, and this choice is the only one that refers to the empirical ascertainment of escape beliefs.
A fear conditioning paradigm was used whereby in the starting time phase, foot shock, which induces fright in mice, was paired with a vivid calorie-free for many trials.
The commencement stage of the fear conditioning image, as described in the study, is known equally:
A. bigotry.
B. acquisition.
C. shaping.
D. generalization.
The answer to this question is B.
In the acquisition stage of the fearfulness workout paradigm, a stimulus (light) that is neutral with respect to the freezing response is associated with an unconditioned stimulus (in this case, foot shock) over a series of trials, until the neutral stimulus elicits a conditioned response (freezing behavior in response to the light).
How would a structural functionalist interpret the efficacy of yoga as office of smoking cessation therapy?
A. Yoga provides an alternate understanding of healthful practices that enables the individual to improve empathize his or her personal needs and motives.
B. Yoga provides an inexpensive therapy selection for those lacking the financial resources necessary for more expensive medical interventions.
C. The utility of yoga every bit an effective smoking cessation therapy stems from the transformation of the private's self-concept every bit a nonsmoker.
D. The utility of yoga as an effective smoking abeyance therapy is an unintended, though beneficial, the outcome of a yoga practice.
The answer to this question is D.
Because the expected part of yoga is not specifically smoking cessation, its utility as a abeyance therapy is a latent function of the social action.
The sociological paradigm of functionalism makes a distinction between manifest or intended, and latent or unintended functions of social activities.
From the functionalist perspective, virtually all social actions have both manifest functions and latent functions, both of which are connected to overall social stability.
The other response options with the question are better linked to the conflict or symbolic interactionist perspectives in sociology.
Source: https://www.brainscape.com/flashcards/fl-exam-2-7880954/packs/12950605
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